I am confused by your question - how/why did the Supreme Court feel it had jurisdiction/authority to direct that a Family Court summons be "held in abeyance" (if that's what was done)? Did the Family Court matter get consolidated into the Supreme Court case? If not, then you would have had a court date already assigned in the Family Court matter, in which case you must seek to verify whether the case was already dismissed due to non-service or not. -- David Bliven, Bronx Child Custody attorney (www.blivenlaw.net)